College Exams & Notes

Master your nursing exams with comprehensive practice questions and detailed explanations

99

Questions

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QUESTION #1
Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 Fundamentals
The nurse assesses a client’s wound and determines the exudate to be purulent. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to interrupt the portal-of-exit link in the chain of infection?
A Wash the hands before providing care to a client.
B Position a commode next to a client’s bed.
C Provide education about a balanced diet.
D Change the dressing when it is soiled.

Explanations

A
Hand hygiene interrupts the mode of transmission, not the portal of exit. It does not stop organisms from leaving the wound
B
This addresses elimination convenience and safety, not infection control. It does not affect organism exit from the wound.
C
Nutrition supports immunity but does not interrupt the chain of infection. It has no effect on the portal of exit.
D
Covering and changing soiled dressings contain wound drainage and prevent organisms from leaving the body. This directly interrupts the portal of exit.
The portal of exit is how microorganisms leave the body, such as through wound drainage. On exams, covering, containing, or disposing of secretions interrupts the portal of exi
QUESTION #2
Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 Fundamentals
A client has a wound that is healing by secondary intention. Which solution to cleanse the wound and dressing should the nurse expect will be prescribed to support wound healing?
A Normal saline and a gauze dressing
B Normal saline and a wet-to-moist dressing
C Povidone-iodine and a dry sterile dressing
D Half peroxide and half normal saline and a wet-to-dry dressing

Explanations

A
Dry gauze does not maintain a moist wound environment. Moisture is needed to promote granulation tissue in secondary intention healing.
B
Normal saline is noncytotoxic, and wet-to-moist dressings maintain a moist environment that supports granulation and epithelialization. This is ideal for secondary intention wounds.
C
Povidone-iodine is cytotoxic to healing tissue and can delay wound healing. Dry dressings also inhibit granulation.
D
Hydrogen peroxide damages healthy tissue, and wet-to-dry dressings are used for debridement, not ongoing healing.
Wounds healing by secondary intention require a moist, non-irritating environment to promote granulation tissue.
QUESTION #3
Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 Fundamentals
The nurse is caring for a group of hospitalized clients. Which should the nurse do first to prevent client infections?
A Provide small bedside bags to dispose of used tissues.
B Encourage staff to avoid coughing near clients.
C Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
D Identify clients at risk.

Explanations

A
Providing tissue disposal helps reduce spread, but it is a specific intervention implemented after risk is recognized. It is not the first step.
B
Encouraging cough etiquette is important, but broad prevention begins with knowing who is most vulnerable. This is not the initial priority.
C
Antibiotics treat infection; they do not prevent infection in most cases. Prevention requires assessment before treatment.
D
Identifying clients at risk allows targeted prevention strategies to be applied appropriately. Assessment always precedes intervention.
In infection prevention, assessment comes before action. On exams, the first step is to identify who is at risk, then implement preventive measures.
QUESTION #4
Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 Fundamentals
The nurse is educating a client about immunity. Which client statement reflects an understanding of how vaccines provide protection against pathogens?
A “The vaccine antibodies surround and destroy the virus.”
B “My body produces antigens to fight the pathogens.”
C “My cells are stimulated to produce antibodies.”
D “The vaccine reacts to the virus to destroy it.”

Explanations

A
Vaccines do not provide antibodies that directly destroy viruses (with rare exceptions like passive immunity). Protection comes from the body’s own immune response.
B
The body produces antibodies, not antigens, to fight pathogens. Antigens are parts of pathogens or vaccines that trigger the immune response.
C
Vaccines stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies and memory cells. This allows faster protection upon future exposure.
D
Vaccines do not directly react with or destroy viruses. They prime the immune system instead.
Vaccines work by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies and memory cells. On exams, remember: antigen exposure → antibody production, not direct destruction.
QUESTION #5
Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 Fundamentals
The nurse is caring for a client with ringworm. Which statement by the client indicates they understand the mode of transmission?
A “I need to wear gloves when scooping the litter box.”
B “I will wear gloves when playing with my kitten.”
C “I will avoid undercooked meat from now on.”
D “I need to stay at home until I am healed.”

Explanations

A
Wearing gloves for the litter box relates to toxoplasmosis risk, not ringworm transmission. Ringworm is not spread via cat feces.
B
Ringworm is a fungal infection spread by direct contact with infected animals or people. Wearing gloves when handling a kitten helps prevent transmission.
C
Avoiding undercooked meat is related to foodborne illnesses, not fungal skin infections. This does not address ringworm spread.
D
Ringworm does not require strict isolation at home. Transmission is prevented with hygiene and avoiding direct contact.
Ringworm spreads through direct skin-to-skin contact or contact with infected animals. On exams, pets—especially kittens—are a common transmission source.
QUESTION #6
Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 Fundamentals
Which condition places a client at the highest risk for developing an infection?
A Implantation of a prosthetic device
B Burns over more than 20% of the body
C Presence of an indwelling urinary catheter
D More than two puncture sites from laparoscopic surgery

Explanations

A
Prosthetic devices increase infection risk, but the risk is localized and generally controlled with sterile technique and prophylaxis. It is not the highest risk listed.
B
Large burns destroy the skin barrier and impair immune function, creating a major portal for infection. This places the client at extremely high risk for systemic infection.
C
Catheters increase infection risk, but the risk is lower and more localized compared to extensive burns.
D
Small surgical punctures pose minimal infection risk when compared with major tissue damage.
The skin is the body’s primary defense against infection. On exams, large burns = highest infection risk due to loss of this protective barrier.
QUESTION #7
Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 Fundamentals
The nurse is obtaining a client’s blood pressure. Which information is most important for the nurse to document?
A Staff member who took the blood pressure
B Client’s tolerance of having the blood pressure taken
C Client’s body position if the client is not in a sitting position
D Which head of a dual-head stethoscope was used to obtain the reading

Explanations

A
The identity of the staff member is not clinically relevant to interpreting the blood pressure reading. It does not affect accuracy.
B
Client tolerance is not necessary to interpret or trend blood pressure values. It is not essential documentation.
C
Body position significantly affects blood pressure readings. Documenting position ensures accurate interpretation and comparison of readings.
D
The stethoscope head used does not influence the recorded blood pressure value. This information is not clinically necessary.
Blood pressure readings vary with body position. On exams, always document position if the client is not sitting, as this affects accuracy and trend comparison.
QUESTION #8
Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 Fundamentals
The nurse is working with an unlicensed assistant. Which of the following tasks can the nurse assign to the assistant?
A Auscultation of breath sounds
B Auscultation of apical pulse
C Inspection of dressing for type of drainage
D Inspection of IV site for infiltration

Explanations

A
Auscultation of breath sounds requires assessment and interpretation. This task must be performed by a licensed nurse.
B
Counting an apical pulse is a routine, standardized skill that can be delegated when the assistant is trained. The nurse remains responsible for interpreting the findings.
C
Identifying the type of drainage requires assessment judgment, not just observation. This is a nursing responsibility.
D
Assessing an IV site for infiltration requires clinical judgment and decision-making. It should not be delegated to unlicensed personnel.
Tasks that involve measurement without interpretation may be delegated to unlicensed assistants.
QUESTION #9
Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 Fundamentals
Which is common to the collection of all specimens for culture and sensitivity tests, regardless of their source?
A Preservative media must be used.
B Two specimens should be obtained.
C Surgical asepsis must be maintained.
D A morning specimen should be collected.

Explanations

A
Some specimens require transport media, but not all cultures use preservative media. This is source-dependent.
B
Multiple specimens are not always required for culture and sensitivity testing. One properly collected specimen is often sufficient.
C
Sterile technique is essential for all culture collections to prevent contamination and ensure accurate results. This applies regardless of specimen source.
D
Morning specimens are required only for certain tests, such as sputum or urine studies. This is not universal.
Culture and sensitivity testing requires strict sterile (surgical asepsis) technique to avoid contamination. On exams, sterility is always the constant for all culture collections.
QUESTION #10
Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 Fundamentals
The emergency department nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with hypothermia. Which factor present in the client’s history may have precipitated this condition?
A Heatstroke
B Inability to sweat
C Excessive exercise
D High alcohol intake

Explanations

A
Heatstroke is associated with hyperthermia, not hypothermia. It represents excessive heat retention.
B
Lack of sweating impairs heat loss and predisposes to hyperthermia. It does not cause hypothermia.
C
Exercise increases body heat production. It does not typically lead to hypothermia.
D
Alcohol causes peripheral vasodilation, increasing heat loss and impairing temperature regulation. It is a common risk factor for hypothermia.
Alcohol increases heat loss by causing vasodilation and reducing awareness of cold exposure. On exams, hypothermia + alcohol use = strong association.